High-Yield Mixed Quiz

Question 1

SATA — select 2

Which TWO statements about type C nerve fibers are correct?

They are responsible for carrying pain They are heavily myelinated They are unmyelinated They are primarily responsible for proprioception

Question 2

SATA — select 2

For a patient in the beach chair position, which TWO statements are correct?

The external auditory meatus is the best reference point for estimating cerebral perfusion pressure MAP at the brain may be lower than the arm cuff pressure Each 1 cm above the heart increases MAP at the brain by about 0.75 mmHg Beach chair positioning eliminates the risk of vision loss

Question 3

SATA — select 2

Which TWO interventions are appropriate for a hypotensive bradycardic episode/Bezold-Jarisch reflex in a shoulder arthroscopy patient sitting in beach chair after interscalene block?

Give fluids Treat with glycopyrrolate or another anticholinergic as indicated Ignore it because bradycardia is expected after all blocks Lower the blood pressure further to reduce bleeding

Question 4

Single best answer

A patient’s head is 20 cm above the heart in beach chair. Approximately how much lower is the MAP at the brain than at the heart?

5 mmHg 10 mmHg 15 mmHg 25 mmHg

Question 5

SATA — select 2

Which TWO perioperative considerations were specifically highlighted for a shoulder arthroscopy in the sitting position?

Secure the airway and protect the eyes/goggles Track irrigation inflow and outflow Use Trendelenburg to improve cerebral perfusion routinely Assume an LMA is always safer than an ETT

Question 6

SATA — select 2

Which TWO statements about pneumatic tourniquets are correct?

They decrease intraoperative blood loss They improve surgical visualization Inflation pressure is set approximately 100 mmHg above MAP There is no risk of permanent nerve damage

Question 7

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Which TWO physiologic changes would be expected after tourniquet deflation?

Increase in serum lactate Increase in potassium Decrease in EtCO2 Increase in pH

Question 8

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Which TWO recommendations were emphasized when recommended tourniquet time has been reached but the surgeon wants to continue?

Deflate the cuff for about 15 minutes to allow reperfusion Re-exsanguinate the limb before reinflation Leave the cuff inflated because an extra 15 minutes never matters Increase cuff pressure instead of deflating

Question 9

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Which TWO findings are associated with bone cement implantation syndrome (BCIS)?

Hypoxia Petechiae Decreased EtCO2 Cardiovascular instability

Question 10

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Under general anesthesia, which TWO findings would be more consistent with fat embolism syndrome than with BCIS?

Long-bone fracture context Petechiae Cementing time as the trigger Decreased EtCO2 only around bone cement insertion

Question 11

Single best answer

Which is NOT a significant risk factor for postoperative vision loss according to the discussion deck?

Prone position Beach chair position Female gender Intraoperative hypotension

Question 12

Single best answer

What was identified as the most common complication of ACDF?

Venous air embolism Dysphagia Hemorrhage Spinal cord damage

Question 13

SATA — select 2

For ACDF, which TWO additional complications should stay on your radar besides dysphagia?

Recurrent laryngeal nerve injury Tracheal or esophageal damage Pneumoperitoneum-induced hypercarbia Tourniquet pain

Question 14

Single best answer

During a successful sciatic peripheral nerve block, which terminal nerve is NOT anesthetized?

Deep peroneal Posterior tibial Saphenous Sural

Question 15

SATA — select 2

Which TWO statements about an ankle block are correct?

It is a circumferential block covering five nerves Epinephrine should be avoided Only the tibial nerve needs to be blocked The saphenous nerve is part of the sciatic distribution

Question 16

Single best answer

True or False: Temporary hyperextension of the neck is an appropriate maneuver to reduce a difficult airway in a patient with rheumatoid arthritis.

True False

Question 17

SATA — select 2

Which TWO report details were specifically emphasized when taking over a lumbar fusion from another CRNA?

Estimated blood loss and fluid status How many levels are being fused What flavor of ice chips the patient preferred in PACU Whether nitrous was used in a prior unrelated case

Question 18

SATA — select 2

Before the previous CRNA leaves a spine case, which TWO assessments were specifically called out?

Document an eyes/ears/nose and extremity assessment Check for positioning-related injury Re-dose prophylactic antibiotics without indication Remove all monitors before the handoff

Question 19

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For scoliosis surgery, which TWO intraoperative concerns were highlighted?

Hypothermia Extensive blood loss Routine use of steep Trendelenburg Low concern for chronic hypoxia or hypercapnia

Question 20

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Which TWO statements about GLP-1 receptor agonists are correct?

They reduce appetite and delay gastric emptying They increase residual gastric volume They are irrelevant to aspiration risk They improve glycemic control only by increasing glucagon secretion

Question 21

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Which TWO gastrointestinal adverse effects of GLP-1 receptor agonists were specifically listed?

Constipation Ileus Pulmonary edema Bronchospasm

Question 22

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Which TWO perioperative recommendations for GLP-1 receptor agonists were highlighted?

For weekly dosing, withhold the dose for 7 days For daily dosing, withhold 1–2 doses before the procedure Delay fasting times for every patient automatically The guidance is only for weight-loss patients and not for diabetes patients

Question 23

SATA — select 2

If a patient continued a GLP-1 agonist and has GI symptoms, which TWO next steps were highlighted?

Use gastric POCUS if available If the stomach is full or the study is inconclusive, consider postponing or using RSI Proceed with a routine LMA because symptoms are expected Ignore the symptoms if the patient followed standard NPO guidelines

Question 24

Single best answer

A person is 5'11" and 176 lb. What is the approximate BMI?

22.6 24.6 25.7 27.7

Question 25

Single best answer

A 50-year-old male weighs 162 kg. Using an estimated blood volume of 50 mL/kg for the obese patient, what is the approximate EBV?

8,100 mL 9,200 mL 11,200 mL 12,000 mL

Question 26

SATA — select 2

Which TWO phentermine-related perioperative considerations are correct?

It should ideally be stopped 4–7 days before surgery It can be associated with intraoperative hypotension Ephedrine is always preferred over phenylephrine It lowers the risk of pulmonary hypertension

Question 27

SATA — select 2

Which TWO adverse reactions of phentermine were specifically listed?

Valvular heart disease Dry mouth Severe bradycardia as the classic effect Guaranteed hypoglycemia

Question 28

Single best answer

Which STOP-Bang item was identified as incorrect in the discussion deck?

S = Snoring T = Tiredness A = Android obesity G = Gender

Question 29

Single best answer

Which of the following is NOT a diagnostic component of metabolic syndrome for females?

Central obesity ≥35 inches Triglycerides ≥150 mg/dL HDL ≥50 mg/dL Hypertension ≥130/85 mmHg

Question 30

SATA — select 2

For a 45-year-old male, 180 cm and 140 kg, undergoing laparoscopic sleeve gastrectomy, which TWO perioperative considerations were emphasized?

Assess for OSA preoperatively Avoid long-acting narcotics Expect improved FRC in the supine position Ignore positioning-related hypotension because he has no PMH

Question 31

Single best answer

In a 185 cm, 145 kg male with ESRD undergoing emergent laparoscopic appendectomy, which plan was identified as NOT appropriate?

Propofol induction based on LBW Succinylcholine for intubation based on TBW Sugammadex for reversal based on TBW None of the above

Question 32

SATA — select 2

Pulse oximetry is persistently 90–93% during laparoscopic appendectomy. Which TWO strategies are most likely to improve oxygenation?

Apply PEEP Use alveolar recruitment maneuvers Increase nitrous oxide concentration Reduce monitoring to avoid distraction

Question 33

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Which TWO statements about respiratory physiology in obesity are correct?

FRC is decreased Supine positioning further reduces FRC Closing capacity is dramatically reduced in the lecture Oxygen consumption is decreased

Question 34

SATA — select 2

Which TWO postoperative strategies help reduce hypoxemia in OSA according to the obesity lecture?

Continuous pulse oximetry monitoring Semi-upright positioning Routine heavy opioid dosing Mandatory Trendelenburg recovery

Question 35

SATA — select 2

Which TWO statements about OHS are correct?

It involves obesity with awake hypercapnia Patients may rely more on hypoxic drive It indicates less sensitivity to respiratory depressants It is defined by low BMI with normal CO2

Question 36

Matching

Match the weight scalar to the drug or parameter most emphasized in the lectures.

Propofol induction

Succinylcholine intubation dose

Low tidal volume during laparoscopy

Question 37

Matching

Match the procedure/setting to the classic complication or concern.

ACDF

Long-bone fracture/intramedullary reaming

Beach chair shoulder arthroscopy

Question 38

Matching

Match the nerve or position risk to the structure classically affected.

Fracture table perineal post

Fibular head compression

Lateral position without proper axillary roll

Question 39

Matching

Match the event to the expected EtCO2 direction.

Tourniquet deflation

BCIS

Fat embolism syndrome under GA

Question 40

SATA — select 2

Which TWO laparoscopic/robotic complications were tied to steep Trendelenburg and prolonged positioning?

Airway edema Peripheral nerve or brachial plexus injury Improved cerebral venous drainage Decreased CVP

Question 41

SATA — select 2

Which TWO statements about nitrous oxide in laparoscopy are correct?

It may increase PONV It diffuses into closed air spaces It is the standard insufflation gas It reliably decreases combustion risk

Question 42

SATA — select 2

Which TWO are NOT appropriate assumptions about the obese patient’s airway and aspiration risk?

Obesity alone guarantees impossible intubation Obese patients may have increased aspiration risk from delayed gastric emptying and GERD Rapid desaturation can occur because FRC is reduced Standard fasting completely eliminates aspiration concern in bariatric patients

Question 43

SATA — select 2

Which TWO preop medication-related issues from the discussion deck could contribute to intraoperative hypotension in shoulder arthroscopy patients?

ACE inhibitor use Beta-blocker use as part of the baseline medication review Topical ocular lubricant A previously healed ankle fracture

Question 44

SATA — select 2

Which TWO statements about postoperative vision loss are correct?

It is associated with prone and beach chair positioning Long spine surgery with high blood loss increases risk Female sex was singled out as a major risk factor It is unrelated to intraoperative hypotension

Question 45

Matching

Match the obesity syndrome or screen to the defining feature.

STOP-Bang A

OHS

Metabolic syndrome

Question 46

SATA — select 2

Which TWO statements about phentermine are NOT correct?

Phenylephrine may be more useful than ephedrine if refractory hypotension occurs It should be continued the morning of surgery to avoid rebound hypotension It is chemically similar to amphetamine It carries no meaningful cardiac adverse effects

Question 47

Matching

Match the bariatric procedure to the classification emphasized in the obesity lecture.

Sleeve gastrectomy

Roux-en-Y gastric bypass

Biliopancreatic diversion with duodenal switch

Question 48

SATA — select 2

Which TWO postoperative or late bariatric issues were specifically highlighted?

Vitamin deficiencies, especially fat-soluble vitamins and B12 GERD or dysphagia Immediate chronic hyperkalemia as the classic late issue Guaranteed relief of aspiration risk forever

Question 49

Matching

Match the spinal/orthopedic procedure or position to the main setup point.

Lumbar fusion

ACDF

Shoulder arthroscopy sitting case

Question 50

SATA — select 2

Which TWO are good reasons to perform regular E/E/N checks during long prone or robotic cases?

To detect pressure or positioning injury early To help prevent ocular/airway complications from going unnoticed Because they replace the need for pulse oximetry Because once the patient is draped no complications can occur